KAPS (Knowledge Assessment of Pharmaceutical Sciences) Exam Questions
www.pharmacymcqs.com
Note: Answer keys are given at the end of the MCQs.
Free KAPS exam preparation materials
b- option b
c- option c
d- option d
e- option e
2) Following is the structure of a sympathomimetic agent. The carbon atom attached directly with the amine group is the alpha carbon while the carbon atom connected directly with the alpha carbon is the beta carbon. Substituting a methyl group at the alpha carbon will result in;
a- rapid metabolism of the compound
b- toxicity of the compound decreases
c- compound having longer duration of action
d- decrease in blood-brain-barrier permeability
e- vasopressor activity of the compound is abolished
3) Isopropyl alcohol, a member of the alcohol family of organic compounds, is also called as;
a- propyl alcohol
b- 1-propanol
c- 2-propanol
d- 3-propanol
e- n-propanol
4) Fenofibrate and Nicotinic acid (Vitamin B3) are used to treat;
a- hyperglycemia
b- vitamin deficiency
c- hyperlipidemia
d- thalassemia
e- hyperhidrosis
5) From the following general chemical structure of barbiturates, how it can be classified as chemically?
a- neutral
b- acidic
c- basic
d- lipophilic
e- hydrophobic
6) The option that offers the highest solubility for sodium phenobarbitone will be:
a- a diluted hydrochloric acid solution
b- a mixture of chloroform and water
c- pH 5 aqueous buffer solution
d- pH 9 aqueous buffer solution
e- distilled water
7) When left uncontrolled over time, diabetes can lead to various long-term complications affecting different parts of the body. Which of the given options is NOT a long-term complication of diabetes?
a- nephropathy
b- microangiopathy and macroangiopathy
c- retinopathy
d- neuropathy
e- hypertension
8) Hemolytic anemia is an example of which type of allergic reaction?
a- Delayed-type hypersensitivity
b- Cytotoxic hypersensitivity
c- Immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity
d- Immediate hypersensitivity
e- Spleen-mediated hypersensitivity
9) Which set of symptoms is MOST commonly seen in a patient displaying signs of right-sided heart failure?
a- distended jugular veins, breathlessness
b- breathlessness, nocturnal dyspnea attacks
c- nocturnal dyspnea attacks, hepatic venous distension
d- reflux in hepatic circulation, abdominal distension
e- abdominal distension, enlarged liver
10) Which of the following options correctly defines the saponification reaction?
a- acids reacting with bases to form soaps and salts
b- soaps reacting with esters to form acids and alcohols
c- reaction in which the -OH group of an organic compound is replaced with a thiol ring
d- reaction in which triple or double bonds are broken into single bonds
e- esters reacting with alkali to form soaps and alcohols
11) The most likely metabolic pathway for Acetaminophen is;
a- Oxidative deamination
b- Ester glucoronidation
c- Nitro-reduction
d- Ether glucoronidation
e- Ester hydrolysis
12) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) is secreted by the;
a- anterior pituitary gland
b- ovarian follicle
c- hypothalamus
d- placenta
e- ovarian stroma
13) Which organ in the body is responsible for the production, development, maturation and release of T lymphocytes?
a- liver
b- bone marrow
c- thymus gland
d- kidneys
e- adrenal glands
14) The CORRECT statement about the connective tissue called 'cartilage' is?
a- it connects muscles to bones in the body
b- it connects bones to bones in the body
c- it is found inside of the bones
d- it is a precursor to the bones during embryo development
e- fibrocartilage is the most common type of cartilage in the body
15) Which medication is administered to patients to reduce the APAP toxicity?
a- naltrexone
b- N-acetylcysteine
c- Remdesivir
d- Interferon-beta
e- Abacavir
16) Which of the following is thought to be the cause of muscle fatigue and pain?
a- too much oxygen demand by the body
b- accumulation of metabolic byproducts, including lactic acid
c- too much carbon dioxide accumulation in the body
d- strenuous exercise or prolonged muscle activity
e- depletion of energy stores of the body
17) The primary mechanism of action of glimepiride is;
a- stimulating the release of insulin from the beta cells in pancreas
b- aborting production of glucose by the liver
c- improving tissues sensitivity to insulin
d- reducing absorption of glucose by the intestines
e- reversible inhibition of α-glucosidase in the small intestine
18) Red blood cells, also known as erythrocytes, does not have the following characteristic?
a- average lifespan of a red blood cell is about 120 days
b- they lack mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum
c- mature red blood cells contain a biconcave nucleus
d- their characteristic red color is due to hemoglobin
e- play a crucial role in removing carbon dioxide from tissues
19) Identify the structures that are responsible for the prevention of backward flow of blood into the ventricles of the heart?
a- tricuspid and mitral valves
b- pulmonary and aortic valves
c- venous valves
d- the visceral and parietal pericardium
e- sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes
20) The carbon dioxide rich blood from all over the body passes through the inferior and superior vena cava and enters the heart's which chamber?
a- right atrium
b- right ventricle
c- left atrium
d- left ventricle
e- carbon dioxide rich blood goes straight to the lungs first
21) The eustachian tube is a narrow passage that connects;
a- the testes to the vas deferens
b- the middle ear to the back of the throat
c- the ovaries to the uterus
d- the back of the throat to the inner ear
e- the middle ear to the inner ear
22) Which of the following hormones acts on the kidneys to increase the permeability of the distal tubules and collecting ducts, allowing these segments of the nephron to reabsorb more water from the urine back into the bloodstream?
a- renin
b- angiotensin
c- vasopressin
d- adrenaline
e- norepinephrine
23) Which of the following is the primary underlying cause of most peptic ulcers?
a- excessive acid secretion
b- excessive histamine secretion from parietal cells
c- excessive gastrin secretion from enterochromaffin-like cells
d- increased mucous secretion
e- infection with the bacterium Helicobacter pylori
24) The ingredient that is not recommended in the treatment of cold sores is;
a- petrolatum
b- tetracaine
c- menthol
d- salicyl alcohol
e- docosanol
25) The two compounds with the given structural formulae can be best described as;
b- optical enantiomers
c- conformational isomers
d- cis-trans isomers
e- functional isomers
26) Which of the following pairs are examples of disaccharides that are carbohydrates composed of two sugar units?
a- fructose and lactose
b- lactose and sucrose
c- glucose and maltose
d- starch and glycogen
e- galactose and sucrose
27) Which organism is frequently identified as the primary pathogen in acute bacterial rhinosinusitis (ABRS) cases?
a- Staphylococcus aureus
b- Clostridium difficile
c- Streptococcus pneumoniae
d- Cryptococcus neoformans
e- Escherichia coli
28) A young couple, eager to conceive, purchases an over-the-counter pregnancy kit. What is the substance that this test is primarily designed to identify?
a- human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
b- luteinizing hormone (LH)
c- follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
d- estrogen
e- progesterone
29) A medicine prescribed to a patient has an oral dose of 250 mg, has bioavailability of 60% and elimination half-life of 3 hours. After 9 hours of ingestion, how much drug will be remaining in the body?
a- 18.75 mg
b- 20 mg
c- 22.2 mg
d- 30 mg
e- 60 mg
30) Which drug is recommended as the first-line treatment of ADHD in children?
a- structure A
b- structure B
c- structure C
d- structure D
e- structure E
31- Pseudoephedrine is often regulated and requires a prescription to purchase in many countries because it is also used as a precursor drug in the manufacturing of:
a- ephedrine
b- phenobarbital
c- methamphetamine
d- MDMA
e- methylphenidate
32- Owing to the cosmetic effects of atropine, a lady unintentionally overdoses on this compound. Which of the following drugs can be used to reverse the effects of atropine poisoning?
a- Physostigmine
b- Benztropine
c- Atracurium
d- Yohimbine
e- Reserpine
33- The one statement that is FALSE about vitiligo is;
a- it is a chronic skin condition that causes patches of skin to lose their pigmentation
b- it cannot be spread from person to person
c- it does not cause hair loss on the affected areas of skin
d- it is not an autoimmune disorder
e- it can be treated with light therapy which involves exposing the affected skin to ultraviolet light
34- It is important to be aware of the potential hazards of parenteral therapy and to take steps to minimize them. Which of the following is NOT a potential complication of the parenteral therapy?
a- hypersensitivity reactions
b- paralytic ileus
c- leakage of fluids or medications outside of the vein
d- inflammation of a vein
e- drop in core body temperature
35- Identify the drug structure in the given figure. Also predict the compound yielded upon the removal of the selected -OH group?
a- the structure is that of epinephrine and the compound yielded will be norepinephrine
b- the structure is that of norepinephrine and the compound yielded will be epinephrine
c- the structure is that of epinephrine and the compound yielded will be phenylephrine
d- the structure is that of phenylephrine and the compound yielded will be epinephrine
e- the structure is that of norepinephrine and the compound yielded will be phenylephrine
36) All of the following are the functions of the liver except one?
a- production of special proteins that help carry fats through the body
b- regulation of blood levels of amino acids
c- production of bilirubin
d- conversion of excess glucose into glycogen
e- regulating blood clotting
37) The excipient that is added just before the compression in the tablet manufacturing process to improve the flow properties of dry powders is;
a- crospovidone
b- croscarmellose sodium
c- microcrystalline cellulose
d- sodium starch glycolate
e- colloidal silicon dioxide
38- Stock solutions available in the pharmacy are 18% and 3%. You are required to make 500ml of the 5% normal saline solution. How many milliliters of the 18% stock solution will be needed to compound the required solution?
a- 18.2 milliliters
b- 36.6 milliliters
c- 66.67 milliliters
d- 316.35 milliliters
e- 433.33 milliliters
39- If the IV solution contains 15,000 units of Heparin per 250ml of Normal Saline and an administration set has a drop factor of 60 drops per ml, what is the number of drops per minute required to achieve an infusion rate of 20 units of Heparin per minute?
a- 20
b- 40
c- 60
d- 80
e- 120
40- Identify the drug structure in the given figure plus the highlighted group plus the benefit of the same group at the current position?
a- structure is of Metronidazole, group is pyridine and it improves the oral bioavailability of the drug
b- structure is of Gemifloxacin, group is quinolone nucleus and it is essential for antibacterial activity
c- structure is of Ciprofloxacin, group is piperazine and it improves the spectrum of antibacterial activity especially against gram-negative bacteria
d- structure is of Cefoperazone, group is pyrazole and it increases drug resistance to beta-lactamase
e- structure is of Clotrimazole, group is azole and it improves the intracellular penetration of the drug
41- One of the following is NOT a sign and symptom of atropine intoxication?
a- delirium
b- palpitation
c- dilated pupils
d- diarrhea
e- difficulty in swallowing
42- The antihyperlipidemic agent that reduces the amount of dietary cholesterol absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract is;
a- ezetimibe
b- cholestyramine
c- gemfibrozil
d- simvastatin
e- nicotinic acid
43- Tacrolimus toxicity commonly presents as;
a- fatal hypoglycemia
b- debilitating kidney problems
c- severe hypotension
d- increased risk of skin cancer
e- severe vitamin b12 depletion
44- What is the volume of 0.9% normal saline solution that can be made from 50 grams of sodium chloride?
a- 100 milliliters
b- 1000 milliliters
c- 2222 milliliters
d- 5000 milliliters
e- 5555 milliliters
45- To confirm the diagnosis of Cushing's syndrome after finding high levels of cortisol in a patient's urine, which of the following medications is given to the patient to test for normal cortisol suppression?
a. hydrocortisone
b. prednisolone
c. triamcinolone acetonide
d. budesonide
e. dexamethasone
46- A patient of deep vein thrombosis is taking warfarin 5 mg PO daily. She comes to the clinic with a slightly elevated INR of 6.8 but without any signs of active bleeding. What will be the appropriate step to manage this patient?
a- stop warfarin for three days and resume at a lower dose
b- give vitamin K intravenously as soon as possible
c- start giving heparin instead of warfarin
d- continue warfarin at the same dose
e- give platelet transfusion
47) The valve that separates the left atrium from the left ventricle is the;
a) Pulmonary valve
b) Tricuspid valve
c) Mitral valve
d) Aortic valve
e) There is no valve between the two
e) There is no valve between the two
48- Morphine is the active metabolite of codeine, and it is responsible for codeine's analgesic effects. Which cytochrome p450 isoform is responsible for the conversion of codeine into its active metabolite?
a- CYP2CI9
b- CYP3A4
c- CYP2C9
d- CYP2D6
e- CYP2E1
49- Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a- there is no prostate gland in female anatomy
b- the diaphragm is a muscle of the digestive system
c- there are 23 chromosomes in a human somatic cell
d- the tibia is a bone of the lower arm
e- the tricuspid valve of the heart is also called as mitral valve
50- Which of the following factors is a sign of poor asthma control in a pediatric patient?
a- school absenteeism due to asthma exacerbations
b- having one canister of salbutamol at home and one at school
c- increased frequency of colds experienced
d- limited ability to participate in physical activity
e- waking up at night due to asthma symptoms
51) Optical enantiomers are molecules that:
a- have the same chemical formula but different spatial arrangement of atoms
b- have the same physical properties but different chemical formula
c- rotate plane-polarized light in the same direction
d- are mirror images of each other
e- have the same physical and chemical properties
52) The following chemical reaction is an example of;
CH3COOH + C2H5OH ⟶ CH3COOC2H5 + H2O
a- saponification
b- esterification
c- hydrogenation
d- neutralization
e- hydrolysis
53) Which equation best describes the rate at which a solid drug dissolves?
a- Michaelis–Menten equation
b- Noyes–Whitney equation
c- Fick’s law
d- Henderson–Hasselbalch equation
e- Law of mass action
54) The function of the pharmacy and therapeutic committee in a hospital is:
a- ensuring that the hospital complies with all relevant pharmaceutical and healthcare regulations
b- responsible for managing cases related to poison exposure
c- monitoring and tracking reports of adverse reactions to medications
d- overseeing the reporting and analysis of medication errors
e- responsible for the management and maintenance of the hospital's drug formulary
55) Milk thistle is commonly used in herbal supplements for its potential liver-protective and antioxidant effects. The active ingredient in milk thistle is called;
a- Silibinin
b- Silymarin
c- Silydianin
d- Silychristin
e- Lactomarin
56) The one statement that is not correct among the following is;
a- vaccines is a type of biotechnology drug
b- increased production of drug targets is a mechanism of drug resistance in bacteria
c- gender is a risk factor for developing drug-induced liver injury
d- warfarin is not a teratogen
e- competition for protein binding sites is a pharmacokinetic interaction
57) Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for developing drug-induced QT prolongation?
a- Female gender
b- hypomagnesemia
c- tachycardia
d- hypothyroidism
e- advanced age
58) Considering the SAR of aspirin, which of the following structural features of aspirin is essential for its antiplatelet activity?
(A) The aromatic ring
(B) The carboxylic acid group
(C) The hydroxyl group
(D) The acetyl group
(E) The methyl group
59) Which one of the following medications cannot be dispensed without prescription?
a- ibuprofen
b- dextromethorphan
c- clotrimazole
d- diphenhydramine
e- aripiprazole
60) Pseudoephedrine is used to;
a- treat high-degree fever
b- relieve nasal congestion
c- control pain in the whole body
d- prevent seasonal and non-seasonal allergies
e- control excessive hypertension
61) Agranulocytosis is the most serious risk related to the treatment with one of the following drugs structures;
b- option B
c- option C
d- option D
e- option E
62) What is the role of sucrose in pharmaceutical preparations?
a- filler
b- binder
c- taste-masking
d- coating material
e- all of the above
63) The step that primarily controls the bioavailability of a lipid-soluble drug in an immediate-release compressed tablet is:
a- how quickly the drug dissolves
b- the rate at which the tablet breaks down and the drug is released
c- transport of drug molecules across the intestinal wall
d- metabolism of the drug by the liver
e- the rate of blood flowing towards the gastrointestinal tract
64) What is a less common but severe hazard linked to the utilization of tofacitinib (10 mg twice daily) in individuals with rheumatoid arthritis?
a- suicidal ideation
b- thrombosis
c- severe anemia
d- abnormal heart rhythm
e- SJS
65) What are the predominant viruses responsible for causing severe diarrhea in infants and young children?
a- Varicella-zoster virus
b- Epstein-Barr virus
c- Hepatitis B virus
d- Rotavirus
e- Hepatitis C virus
66) In terms of its biochemical classification, which category does gelatin fall under?
a- Polysaccharide
b- Steroid
c- Triglyceride
d- Fibrous protein
e- Polyphenol
67) Based on your knowledge of pharmacy subjects, judge one statement among the following that is NOT true?
a- sodium metabisulphite is used in injections of adrenaline as an antioxidant
b- the interaction between methylcellulose and p-hydroxybenzoic acid is a complexation reaction
c- volatile oils contain terpenes as main constituents
d- Ramipril contains a sulphur atom in its chemical structure
e- Ezetimibe is used to treat hyperlipidemia
68) Terpenes being derived from the isoprene units are categorized into different classes based on the number of isoprene units they contain. How many isoprene units does sesquiterpenes contain?
a- two
b- three
c- four
d- six
e- eight
69) What is the pharmacological class of the following drug structure?
b- cox-2 inhibitor
c- loop diuretic
d- SSRI
e- 2nd generation antipsychotic
70) Which statement among the following is INCORRECT about the common skin condition 'blackheads'?
a- they are a type of acne
b- compared to whiteheads they are not hurting
c- they are open comedones
d- they result from the excessive intake of oily foods
e- they do not spread through physical contact
71) Cytosine is a (an);
a- alkaloid
b- nitrogenous base
c- nucleic acid
d- deoxyribose sugar
e- protein
72) Altered sweat composition (sweat glands produce sweat with a higher salt content than normal) is a characteristic feature of;
a- diabetes insipidus
b- hyperthyroidism
c- hyperhidrosis
d- cystic fibrosis
e- hypertension
73) Which of the following hematocrit values would be considered within the optimal range for a healthy adult female?
a- 8 %
b- 24 %
c- 39 %
d- 75 %
e- 90 %
74) Which of the following statements does not accurately describe the function of the cells in the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)?
a- majority of glucose reabsorption takes place in the PCT
b- the main site of potassium ion reabsorption is the PCT
c- PCT cells are not capable of reabsorbing hydrogen ions (H+) from the tubular fluid
d- PCT cells do not respond to the hormone aldosterone
e- majority of water reabsorption occurs in the proximal convoluted tubule rather than the distal convoluted tubule
75) Which of the following statements is FALSE about diabetic retinopathy?
a- it is not caused by proteolytic enzymes degrading the retina
b- it does not cause corneal injury
c- involves irreversible changes in the retinal architecture
d- is characterized by small, localized bulges in the blood vessels of retina and bleeding into the vitreous humor
e- impaired drainage of the aqueous humor is not a primary factor in the development of diabetic retinopathy
f- none of the above
76) The one statement that is CORRECT about enantiomers is;
a- they are non-superimposable mirror images of each other
b- they differ in melting points and boiling points
c- their racemate rotate plane-polarized light in opposite directions
d- chiral center is lacking in them
e- they have the same spatial arrangement of atoms
77) Essential dietary fatty acids are specific types of fats that the body cannot synthesize on its own and therefore must be obtained from the diet. The essential dietary fatty acid that serves as a precursor for the synthesis of longer-chain omega-3 fatty acids is;
a- linoleic acid
b- valeric acid
c- linolenic acid
d- docosahexaenoic acid
e- arachidonic acid
78) Propyl gallate is used in some injectable medications as a pharmaceutical excipient. The function of this excipient in the drug formulation is;
a- a stabilizer
b- an antioxidant
c- a buffering agent
d- a reducing agent
e- a numbing agent
79) What will happen to salicylic acid when it is shaken with chloroform (which has a specific gravity of 1.47) and dilute aqueous nitric acid?
a- it will be mainly found in the chloroform layer
b- it will be mainly found in the aqueous layer
c- it will precipitate in the chloroform layer
d- it will precipitate in the aqueous layer
e- it will be distributed evenly between both the layers
80) Taking into account the chemical structure of phenol, of the options given, the statement that does NOT apply to phenol is:
b- soluble in hydrochloric acid
c- soluble in ether and chloroform
d- it is very hygroscopic and will absorb moisture from the air
e- it is a basic compound
81) Which of the following statements are CORRECT about morphine?
A- it is 50 times more potent than fentanyl
B- it is a natural opioid analgesic
C- morphine increases the respiratory rate
D- morphine-6-glucuronide is the primary active metabolite of morphine
E- it reverses the constipation event
a- both A and E are correct
b- both B and D are correct
c- A, B and C are correct
d- C, D and E are correct
e- B, C and D are correct
82) The compounds primarily responsible for the characteristic fragrance and therapeutic properties of essential oils are?
a- alkaloids
b- terpenes
c- glycosides
d- fatty acids
e- aliphatic hydrocarbons
83) Emulsions are stabilized with the help of emulsifiers. Which of the following substances is classified as a non-ionic emulsifying agent?
a- benzalkonium chloride
b- sodium lauryl sulphate
c- milk of magnesia
d- sodium oleate
e- glyceryl stearate
84) The following is the structure of the 4-Hydroxybenzoic acid. This compound is also known as;
a- pseudo-hydroxybenzoic acid
b- ortho-hydroxybenzoic acid
c- meta-hydroxybenzoic acid
d- para-hydroxybenzoic acid
e- levo-hydroxybenzoic acid
85) A tertiary alcohol on oxidation yields;
a- aldehyde
b- ketone
c- carboxylic acid
d- secondary alcohol
e- tertiary alcohols are resistant to oxidation
86) The major culprit behind 90-95% of all the hypertension cases is;
a- neuroendocrine tumor of the adrenal glands
b- excessive production of aldosterone by adrenal glands
c- weakening of the wall of aorta
d- disruptions in the normal regulation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
e- majority of cases of hypertension have an unknown cause
87) In a patient of automobile accident with severe trauma to the head, the physician discovers marked damage to the posterior pituitary. This can lead to what in the patient?
a- Graves' disease
b- development of vascular dementia
c- disruption in storage and release of both oxytocin and ADH
d- growth hormone deficiency resulting in stunted growth
e- Tourette syndrome
88) Which of the following statements about petrolatum (or petroleum jelly) is NOT true?
a- it is derived from petroleum
b- it has melting point around body temperature
c- it is soluble in ethyl alcohol
d- used in industries for rust prevention
e- it can be dissolved in mineral oil and chloroform
89) Which of the following is a correct statement about Angiotensin Converting Enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors)?
a- ACE inhibitors are known to improve kidney function in diabetic nephropathy
b- ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in patients with heart failure
c- They work by increasing the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
d- ACE inhibitors and potassium-sparing diuretics combo should always be avoided
e- ACE inhibitors are the first-line treatment for hypertension in patients with hyperkalemia
90) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding cystic fibrosis?
a- it is caused by a viral infection
b- it primarily affects the cardiovascular and nervous systems
c- it is caused by mutations in the CFTR gene
d- the condition leads to lung disease predominantly caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae
e- it is an acquired disorder caused by environmental factors
91) Which of the following chemical structures represents the compound of clotrimazole?
a- option A
b- option B
c- option C
d- option D
e- option E
92) The following chemical structure depicts which compound?
a- quinoline
b- pyridine
c- pyrrolidine
d- pyrimidine
e- naphthalene
93) Following is the chemical structure of the drug neostigmine which is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor. This activity is attributable to which portion of the neostigmine structure?
a- the carbamate group attached to the right of the aromatic ting
b- the positively charged quaternary ammonium group
c- both carbamate and quaternary ammonium groups collectively
d- aromatic ring along with the non-polar carbamate group
e- aromatic ring along with the polar quaternary ammonium group
94) Given below is the chemical structure of hexylresorcinol. What will happen to this compound upon exposure to light and air? Choose the most likely option;
a- vaporizes
b- liquefies
c- reduces
d- dehydrates
e- oxidizes
95) Identify a complexation interaction from the following reactions?
a- the reaction between ammonia (NH3) and a copper(II) ion
b- sucrose reacting with water to form glucose and fructose
c- n number of ethylene units combining to form polyethylene
d- the common phenomena of rusting of iron
e- ethanol engaging with acetic acid to yield ethyl acetate and water
96) The following is the molecular structure of atropine. Considering the structure-activity relationship (SAR) of atropine, the presence of which group contributes to the limited stability of atropine, especially in alkaline conditions?
b- tropine moiety
c- alcohol group
d- ester linkage
e- tropane core
97) All of the following medicinal agents contains a sulfur atom in their molecular structure except one?
a- ranitidine
b- thiopental
c- acetylcysteine
d- ciprofloxacin
e- glimepiride
98) The metabolic conversion of phenobarbital in the liver is predominantly mediated by the;
a- microsomal MFOs
b- glucuronyl transferases
c- acetyltransferases
d- hepatic amidases
e- phenobarbital is primarily metabolized by the kidneys
99) Tranylcypromine is a medication that belongs to the class of drugs known as monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs). The molecular structure of tranylcypromine is characterized by a rigid cyclopropane ring with two substituents arranged in a trans-configuration relative to each other. These substituents are attached to separate carbon atoms. Which statement correctly shows the spatial orientation of the attached substituents?
a- one is oriented upwards and the other is oriented downwards, both relative to the plane of the ring
b- both are oriented downwards relative to the plane of the ring
c- both are oriented in the plane of the ring
d- one is oriented in the plane of the ring, other oriented upwards
e- both are oriented upwards relative to the plane of the ring
100) Which functional group or moiety in a drug molecule would facilitate its effective detection in UV analysis, a technique that involves measuring the absorption of ultraviolet or visible light by a substance?
a- tertiary amine
b- primary alcohol
c- aldehyde group
d- aromatic ring
e- ketone group
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
Answer Keys
MCQ # - Correct option
1- a
2- c
3- c
4- c
5- b
6- d
7- e
8- b
9- a
10- e
10- e
11- d
12- a
13- c
14- d
15- b
16- b
17- a
18- c
19- b
20- a
21- b
22- c
23- e
24- c
25- a
26- b
27- c
28- a
29- a
30- b
31- c
32- a
33- d
34- b
35- c
36- c
37- e
38- c
39- a
40- c
41- d
42- a
43- b
44- e
45- e
46- a
47- c
48- d
49- a
50- e
51- d
52- b
53- b
54- e
55- b
56- d
57- c
58- d
59- e
60- b
61- e
62- e
63- a
64- b
65- d
66- d
67- d
68- b
69- b
70- d
71- b
72- d
73- c
74- c
75- f
76- a
77- c
78- b
79- a
80- e
81- b
82- b
83- e
84- d
85- e
86- e
87- c
88- c
89- a
90- c
91- d
92- a
93- c
94- e
95- a
96- d
97- d
98- a
99- a
100- d
WATCH ALSO: 👇👇👇👇👇
Pharmacist Exam Prep. Videos
www.pharmacymcqs.com
0 Comments
If you have any suggestions or find some information inaccurate, plz let me know. Thanks.